Montrey
Member
Stupid question but I need confirmation.
Can you use a moving average of the dependent variable as an independent variable in a regression analysis?
I know there is a term for this type of error but it has been several years since college.
I almost positive this is a big no no mostly because it always produces an R^2 of nearly 100%.
Thanks to anyone that can affirm.
Can you use a moving average of the dependent variable as an independent variable in a regression analysis?
I know there is a term for this type of error but it has been several years since college.
I almost positive this is a big no no mostly because it always produces an R^2 of nearly 100%.
Thanks to anyone that can affirm.